OK. Point by point:
mnagi85: The word "holocaust" is intrinsically Jewish. It as a Hebrew word(ha-shoah) used to describe what the Jews, 6 million of them, suffered. Supposedly.
Response: Not sure how the etymology of the word Holocaust applies as an argument for or against the validity of the event actually occurring. To me it seems only logical that if one assumes that the Jewish sect was exterminated in this manner that they would coin the term for the act.
mnagi85: Considering the fact that there were approximately 11 million Jews WORLDWIDE during the year 1945, and in 1950 there were approximately 11.3 million Jews! (JAFI- Jewish Agency For Israel) (source:http://www.jafi.org.il/education/100/concepts/demography/demtables.html#2)
Response: Ok, this is going to come down to a question of several different agencies reporting things differently. Turning to so deeply an invested group as those who actually suffered from the atrocities of the war seems a foolish proposition to me, and I am not aware of what oversight the Jewish agencies have regarding the validity of their data. A publication whose data I do tend to believe is valid, however, is the world almanac, which lists markedly different numbers than what you do. While the World Almanac made it very clear that any numbers between the years of 1945-1948 are based upon 1939 data due to the inability to gather new census data on that group, the numbers for pre and post world war 2 uphold the reality of the holocaust. To whit: 16,643,120 Jews in 1939, 11,266,600 alive in 1949. Incidentally, I use the number that the Almanac later revised their estimation to assuming a greater degree of accuracy. The population decline is still extreme if you use their initial number of 15,713,638. So, at the end of the day, we have the question of which source is more credible, the JAFI or the World Almanac?
mnagi85: According to the USHMM(United States Holocaust Memorial Museum), there were 9.5 million Jews in Europe ALONE. And both websites(JAFI and USHMM) reference to the American Jewish Yearbook. Yet in USHMM, it says, and I quote, "only a third of the world's Jewish population lived in Europe."(source: http://www.ushmm.org/wlc/article.php?lang=en&ModuleId=10005687) What does this mean? This simply means that the USHMM made an INCREDIBLE mistake. If there were 11 million Jews world-wide, yet only a third of world's Jewish population lived in Europe(one third of 11 million is about 3.7 million) lived in Europe, it makes it incontrovertible that a far less amount of Jews were killed during this so called "holocaust". How can you kill 6 million if only 3.7 million existed?
Response: Ok, wow...this is downright misleading good sir! In the future, when quoting, please do not quote out of context in order to misrepresent the facts. Here is the complete sentence that you quoted: "In 1950, most Jews (51 percent) lived in the Americas (North and South combined), while only a third of the world's Jewish population lived in Europe." Gee, ya think? After Hitler annihilated the Jewish people throughout Europe they might have a lower population base there? Perhaps....
The rest of your side of the argument is expositional rather than citing any further hard data facts, so further rebuttal is unnecessary. I would be interested in hearing your response to the rebuttals of your above points however.